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"It is impossible for him to please her" If I change this to "He is impossible to please her", is second one correct?

If not, could you explain why?

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No not correct. What is impossible--the person or the act of pleasing? The first sentence says IT is impossible, meaning the act. The second sentence says HE is impossible. A person can't be impossible.

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The first one is correct.

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Not my school work haha

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First one is correct. Second is saying the guy is impossible; if he exists, he is possible. "It", meaning pleasing the girl, is what's impossible.

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Hi again~ DeepDark~
Your expanation is helpful~ Thankyou~ :D
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The second one just sounds a little off! I would go with the first one the grammar and wording is better!

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Both are correct. The first is just the inverted version of the sentence.

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no the first one

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