"It is impossible for him to please her" If I change this to "He is impossible to please her", is second one correct?
If not, could you explain why?
No not correct. What is impossible--the person or the act of pleasing? The first sentence says IT is impossible, meaning the act. The second sentence says HE is impossible. A person can't be impossible.
The first one is correct.
Not my school work haha
First one is correct. Second is saying the guy is impossible; if he exists, he is possible. "It", meaning pleasing the girl, is what's impossible.
The second one just sounds a little off! I would go with the first one the grammar and wording is better!
Both are correct. The first is just the inverted version of the sentence.
no the first one