Yes: . Joel 3:4 Yea, and what have ye to do with me, O Tyre, and Zidon, and all the coasts of Palestine? will ye render me a recompence? and if ye recompense me, swiftly and speedily will I return your recompence upon your own head;
Four times but it is an English word derived from the Greek Philistea or Philistine which itself is derived from the name Plesheth which is found often in the Bible. Obviously most of the specific ENGLISH words wont be found in original Hebrew and Greek original texts because the languages dont have the same words. The land area refered to as Palestine/Philistine/Philistea/Plesheth existed then as it does now tho and played an important part both in regular history and in the history of Gods people. The Jewish claim to the territory comes in Gods covenant with Abraham and later Gods promises to Moses and the people of Israel that all the land in that area, Philistine included, was given to them by God as long as they obeyed Him. Which they didnt entirely do unfortunately.
5 months ago
Last edited at 9:46AM on 11/25/2013
No, and for a good reason. The term Palestine (English for the Latin Palestina) was invented only after the Bar Kochba revolt in the 2nd century CE. The Romans wanted to weaken the claim of Jews for Judea, so they did two things: changed the name if the land from Judea to Palestina, and included it administratively as part of Syria. What the Bible does have though is a name for a part of the land, the southern part of the coastal plains, which was called Philistea after the Philistines who used to live there, Isaiah 14:29; 14:31; Psalms 60:10; 83:8; 87:4; 108:10; Exodus 15:14; Joel 4:4. The term Philistea is a translation of the original Hebrew term "Plesheth", referring to the same, i.e., the land of the Philistines, namely only the southern parts of the coastal plains. Another term the Bible uses is "Eretz Plishtim" in Hebrew, or "Land of the Philistines", which refers to the same geographical area: Gen. 21:32; 21:34; Exodus 13:17; 1 Sam. 27:1; 31:9; 30:16; 1 Kings 5:1; 2 Kings 8:2; Jer. 25:20; Zephaniah 2:5; 1 Chron. 10:9; 2 Chron. 9:26. There are other variants that appear fewer times: "sedot Plishtim", or the fields of the Philistines, "yam Plishtims", the sea of the Philistines, or "gelilot Plishtim", the counties (?) of the Philistines. If any if these terms is translated to Palestine that would be (a) geographically inaccurate, as Palestine refers to the land of the combined modern Israel and Jordan, and (b) anachronistic as that term was invented only in the 2nd century CE.