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Popular Q&A

Q:
Why is cos-1(0) equal pi/2?

A:
The inverse cosine of a number y is defined to be the number x (in radians) between 0 and pi (inclusive) such that cos (x)y. pi/2 is in that range, 3pi/2 is not.
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Source:
answers.yahoo.com

Q:
How to solve for cos ^2x-1=0? Trigonometric Equations?

A:
cos ²x = 1 . cosx = √1 - cos x = ±1 . So - Cos inverse(1 ) = 0 - So cancel this out. Cos inverse(1 ) = 180° - You got the basic angle i.e Θ. Now cosine is positive i...
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Source:
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Q:
If 2*cosx*cos (3x)+1 =0, what can x be between 0 and 2pi?

A:
First of all, we'll write 2*cosx*cos (3x) as a sum, following the formula: cos a+cos b= 2cos [(a+b)/2]cos [(a-b)/2] So, 2*cosx*cos (3x)= cos a+ cos b x=(a+b)/2 => ...
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Q:
What is the value of tanZ in a right triangle XYZ sinZ=21/29 and ...

A:
Set up the triangle so the sides are
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Q:
How to solve the inequality 5sin x-2cos^2x-1>=0 in the interval [...

A:
First, we'll express all inequality in terms of sin x. For this reason, we'll apply the Pythagorean identity: (cos x)^2 = 1 - (sin x)^2 We'll re-write the inequ...
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